New CCNA Exam Practice Questions

CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

1. Which definition of a default route is true?
  A. a route to the exact /32 destination address
  B. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing
  C. a dynamic route learned from a server
  D. a route that is manually configured

2. Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
  A. process ID
  B. loopback interface
  C. public IP address
  D. router ID

3. Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
  A. transparent
  B. blocking
  C. forwarding
  D. desirable
  E. on
  F. auto

4. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
  A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches
  B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
  C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
  D. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch
  E. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.

5. Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at least two times the metric?
  A. path selection
  B. equal cost load balancing
  C. path count
  D. unequal cost load balancing

6. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router
   configuration checks you must perform? (Choose three.)
  A. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
  B. Verify that a default route is configured
  C. Verify that the router interface IP address is correct
  D. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask
  E. Verify that the route appears in the routing table.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  F. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.

7. Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
  A. Updates are sent to a broadcast address
  B. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
  C. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
  D. It uses split horizon.
  E. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
  F. RIP is a link-state protocol.

8. What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
  A. on
  B. desirable
  C. client
  D. auto
  E. forwarding
  F. transparent

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the
   switch once the boot process has been completed?<br>

  A. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
  B. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
  C. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change
  D. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.

10. Which state does the port-channel interface enter when LACP is misconfigured on the
  A. disabled
  B. errdisable
  C. enabled
  D. forwarding
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

11. When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface
    respond when it receives a BPDU?
  A. It goes into an errdisable state
  B. It continues operating normally.
  C. It goes into a down/down state
  D. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN

12. Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two.)
  A. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic.
  B. It encapsulates all traffic m an IPv4 header
  C. It provides automatic authentication.
  D. It can carry mutiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6
  E. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q

13. Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?
  A. It requires a secure SSLVPN connection.
  B. A factory reset is required if you forget the password.
  C. It requires physical access to the router
  D. The default reset password is cisco.

14. Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   You determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer B.
  A. The default gateway address for Computer B is incorrect
  B. The subnet mask for Computer B is incorrect
  C. The subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect
  D. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect

15. Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
  A. discarding
  B. listening
  C. learning
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 D. forwarding

16. Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex
    mismatch errors between two switches? (Choose three.)
 A. Set both sides of the connection to full duplex
 B. Set one side of the connection to auto negotiate and the other side to half duplex
 C. Set one side of the connection to auto-negotiate and the other side of full duplex
 D. Set both sides of the connection to auto negotiate
 E. Set both sides of the connection to half duplex
 F. Set one side of the connection to full duplex and the other side to half duplex

17. For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking
    switches? (Choose two.)
 A. to increase the maximum port count
 B. to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager
 C. to increase the number of device in use
 D. to avoid relying society on Ethernet interfaces
 E. to allow host-swapping modules

18. Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?
 A. Configure the relay agent information option
 B. Configure a name server.
 C. Configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy
 D. Configure manual bindings

19. Which two statements about configuring an EtherChannel on a Cisco switch are true?
    (Choose two.)
 A. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must operate at the speed and duplex mode.
 B. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must be on the same physical switch.
 C. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must be part of the same VLAN or trunk.
 D. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must have same STP port path cost
 E. An EtherChannel can operate in Layer 2 mode only.

20. Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It runs on the data link layer only
 B. It uses SNMP to share device information to an external server.
 C. It is used to initiate a VTP server and client relationship.
 D. It uses TLVs to share device information
 E. It runs on the network layer and the data link layer.

21. Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? (Choose two.)
 A. The destination device must support the echo protocol
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. The source device must be a Cisco device but the destination device can be from any vendor.
 C. A default gateway must be configured for the Source and destination devices
 D. The Source and destination devices must be Cisco devices.
 E. The source device must be running Layer 2 services.

22. Which two statements about EUl-64 addressing are true? (Choose two.)
 A. The addresses includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address
 B. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
 C. A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
 D. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address
 E. A locally administered addresses has the universal/local bit set to 0.

23. If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an established
    BGP neighbour, which additional task must you perform to allow the two devices to
    continue exchange routers?
 A. Reset the BGP connections on the device.
 B. Reset the gateway interface.
 C. Clear the IP routes on the device
 D. Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match

24. Which two statements about IPV6 anycast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
 A. They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space
 B. They use the prefix FC00::/8
 C. They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol.
 D. They are allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space.
 E. They are used in conjuction with the source-specific multicast for IPv6

25. Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
 A. PQ
 B. CAR
 E. PBR

26. Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture and analyze frames that
    transit an interface? (Choose two.)
 D. NetFlow
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

27. Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port.
 B. It aggregates traffic statistic for reporting on a configuration basis.
 C. It requires a remote device to log and rnaintain collected data.
 D. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance
 E. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated
  end device.

28. Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true? (Choose
 A. reliability
 B. improved scalability
 C. reduce jitter
 D. redundancy
 E. increased latency

29. Which two addresses are defined as private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
 A.
 B.
 C.
 D.
 E.

30. Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true? (Choose two.)
 A. Each switch manages its own MAC address table
 B. When a new master switch is elected It queries the previous master for its running configuration
 C. The administrator can create only one stack of switch of switches in a network which is under the
  same administrative domain
 D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases
 E. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface.

31. Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by
    a smaller number of public IP addresses?
 A. NAT
 B. NTP
 C. RFC 1918
 D. RFC 1631

32. Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterprise network are true?
    (Choose two.)
 A. They are most effective when placed in front of the router connected to the Internet.
 B. They can track the number of active TCP connections
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 C. They are more susceptible to Dos attacks than stateless firewalls.
 D. They can filter HTTP and HTTPS traffic in the inbound direction only
 E. They can use information about previous packets to make decisions about future packets

33. Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
 B. NDP
 C. ARP
 E. TCPv6

34. In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?
 A. forwarding
 B. learning
 C. discarding
 D. listening

35. What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?
 A. /32
 B. /48
 C. /64
 D. /127
 E. /128

36. Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)
 A. spanning-tree topology
 B. access-list configuration
 C. routing configuration
 D. device type
 E. device management address.

37. After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which
    two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device? (Choose two.)
 A. All configured IP name server addresses are removed
 B. The no ip domain lookup command is configured
 C. The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
 D. The DNS server queue limit is disabled.
 E. The ip host command is disabled.

38. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
 A. inside public
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  B. outside global
  C. inside global
  D. inside local
  E. outside local
  F. outside public

39. Which two statements about LLDP are true? (Choose two.)
  A. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
  B. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices.
  C. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3.
  D. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer.
  E. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11 a specification

40. Which commands can you can enter to verify that a router is synced with a configured
    time source?
  A. ntp authenticate
  B. show ntp authenticate
  C. show ntp associations
  D. ntp associations
  E. ntp server timer

41. A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3.
    What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
  A. debug
  B. informational
  C. warning
  D. error
  E. emergency
  F. critical

42. What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
  A. It can disable the overload command.
  B. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
  C. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
  D. it can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.

43. Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (Choose two.)
  A. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
  B. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others.
  C. You can add or remove switches without talking the stack down.
  D. The stack enables any active member to talk over as the master switch if the existing master fails.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  E. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image.

44. Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the
    NVRAM when it boots?
  A. 0x2124
  B. 0x2102
  C. 0x2142
  D. 0x2120

45. What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
  A. capture
  B. get
  C. response
  D. trap

46. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a
    nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a
    maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet Working with only one Class B address,
    which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme?
    (Choose two.)
  A. 255.255 255.0
  B.
  C.
  D.
  E.
  F.

47. Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
  A. PAT
  B. ARP
  C. TFTP
  D. SFTP

48. Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true?
    (Choose three)
  A. The global ID is 14920bf83d
  B. The global ID is 4079
  C. The address is a unique local address
  D. The subnet ID is 4079
  E. The address is a link-local address
  F. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

49. What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
  A. community strings
  D. HMAC-MD5

50. Refer to the exhibit<br>

                                                                   A network technician
   is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this
   design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made
   about this design?
  A. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
  B. This design will function as intended
  C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
  D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
  E. Spanning-tree will need to be used

51. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
  A. 2002:7654:A1AO:61:81AF:CCC1
  B. FECO:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
  C. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
  D. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

52. Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.<br>

                                                                             Which three
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

   ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same
   bandwidth? (Choose three.)
  A. Switch C - Fa0/1
  B. Switch A - Fa0/0
  C. Switch B - Fa0/0
  D. Switch A - Fa0/1
  E. Switch B - Fa0/1
  F. Switch C - Fa0/0

53. Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server
  A. show ip dhcp binding
  B. show ip dhcp conflict
  C. show ip dhcp server statistics
  D. show ip dhcp database

54. Refer to the exhibit<br>

                                                                     A new subnet
   with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this
   network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest
  A.
  B.
  C.
  D.

55. Refer to the exhibit<br> Each of these four switches has been configured with a
    hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes
    have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

   indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

  A. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
  B. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
  C. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
  D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
  E. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
  F. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

56. Refer to the exhibit<br>

   If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel
  A. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
  B. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
  C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1 's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.

57. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
 B. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguratlon
 D. IPv6 stateful autocorfiqurauon
 E. ISATAP tunneling

58. Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)
 A. inside private
 B. outside private
 C. inside local
 D. external global
 E. inside global
 F. external local

59. Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router?
    (Choose three).
 A. ntp authentication-key
 B. ntp authenticate
 C. ntp max-associations
 D. ntp peer
 E. ntp trusted-key
 F. ntp refclock

60. Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time
    for all IP traffic between a Cisco router and an end device?
 A. UDP echo
 B. UDP Jitter
 C. TCP connect
 D. ICMP path echo
 E. ICMP path Jitter
 F. ICMP echo

61. Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
 A. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
 B. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
 C. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP
  trap messages.
 D. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log fies without using router disk
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  E. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
  F. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.

62. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
  A. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast
  B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast
  C. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
  D. FECO::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast
  E. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast
  F. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.

63. Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with
    millisecond precision?
  A. logging host
  B. logging buffered 4
  C. no logging console
  D. no logging monitor

64. Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
  A. broadcast
  B. anycast
  C. podcast
  D. multicast
  E. allcast

65. Refer to the exhibit<br>

   Which statement is true?
  A. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
 C. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA rs the root bridge for VLAN 20
 D. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.

66. Refer to the diagram<br>

   All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the
   addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
 A. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses
 B. The IP address can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
 C. The subnet mask in use is
 D. The IP address can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
 E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
 F. The subnet mask in use is

67. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous
    circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
 A. PPP
 B. X.25
 C. Frame Relay

68. What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
 A. the ISP local cache
 B. a recursive DNS search
 C. the browser cache
 D. the operating system cache
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69. Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface Serial 0/2/0 has
    been configured using HDLC encapsulation?
 A. router#show platform
 B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
 C. router#show ip interface Serial 0/2/0
 D. router#show ip interface brief

70. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation
    process? (Choose two.)
 A. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment
 B. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
 C. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
 D. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination
  host addresses and protocol-related control information
 E. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control

71. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
 A. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted
 B. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
 C. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP
 D. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
 E. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection
 F. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device

72. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you
    to view directly connected Cisco devices?
 A. cdp run
 B. cdp enable
 C. enable run
 D. run cdp

73. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B
    be written? (Choose two.)
 A. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B
 B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:572B
 C. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:572B
 D. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
 E. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:572B
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

74. Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state?
    (Choose three.)
 A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured
 B. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself
 C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
 D. The ISP is blocking the traffic
 E. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic
 F. The tunnel interface is down.

75. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth
 B. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts
 C. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
 D. It is bandwidth-intensive.
 E. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data

76. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the
 A. bootstrap
 B. ROMMON mode
 D. mini-lOS

77. During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
 A. the Active Discovery phase
 B. the PPP Session phase
 C. Phase 2
 D. the Authentication phase
 E. Phase 1

78. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
 A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies
 B. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
 C. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
 D. EIGRP, OSPF and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
 E. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing

79. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?
 A. router
 B. Layer 3 switch
 C. Layer 2 switch
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  D. Layer 2 bridge

80. Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
  A. runts
  B. deferred
  C. late collisions
  D. CRC errors
  E. giants
  F. no earner

81. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
  A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
   same network infrastructure.
  B. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
   network traffic.
  C. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1 Q trunks.
  D. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
   the same broadcast domain.
  E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
   network infrastructure.
  F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
   their size.
  G. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
   increasing their size.

82. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle
    the packet?
  A. It sends the packet to the gateway of the last resort
  B. It discards the packet
  C. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric.
  D. It sends the packet to the next hop address

83. Refer to the exhibit.<br>

    Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the
  A. router#show ip protocols
  B. router#show startup-config
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 C. router#show interface gig 0/1
 D. router#show line

84. Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information?
 A. exterior gateway protocols
 B. distance-vector protocols
 C. path-vector protocols
 D. link-state protocols

85. When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose
 A. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
 B. Determine whether the name servers have been configured.
 C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
 D. Ping a public website IP address.
 E. Ping the DNS server.

86. Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing
    before you implement OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
 A. Configure a loopback interface.
 B. Configure an autonomous system number.
 C. Enable IPv6 on an interface.
 D. Configure a router ID.
 E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing.

87. Which functionality does split horizon provide?
 A. It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols
 B. It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols
 C. It prevents Switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
 D. It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols

88. Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?
 A. Its privacy algorithms use MOS encryption by default
 B. It requires passwords to be encrypted
 C. Its authentication and privacy algorithms are enabled without default values.
 D. It requires passwords at least eight characters in length

89. Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
 A. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted
 B. They may indicate a duplex mismatch
 C. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes
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 D. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
 E. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match

90. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose
 A. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address
 B. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwardinq decisions based on both Layer 2 and
  Layer 3 address information
 C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
 D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network
 E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
  contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast
  domain will have only one root port.
 F. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains

91. Which function does traffic shaping perform?
 A. It buffers and queues excess packets
 B. It drops packets to control the output rate.
 C. It buffers traffic without queuing it
 D. It queues traffic without buffering it

92. Which two options are fields is an Ethernet frame? (Choose two)
 A. frame check sequence
 B. destination IP address
 C. source IP address
 D. header
 E. type

93. Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two.)
 A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2
 B. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3
 C. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex
 D. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision
 E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision

94. Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are
    configured with a duplex mismatch?
 A. an interface with a down/down status
 B. collisions on the interface
 C. the spanning-tree process shutting down
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  D. an interface with an up/down status

95. What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
  A. speed
  B. trunk encapsulation
  C. duplex
  D. DTP negotiation settings

96. Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose
  A. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
  B. calculates shortest path
  C. utilizes frequent periodic updates
  D. utilizes event-triggered updates
  E. provides common view of entire topology

97. Which two statements about firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
  A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system
  B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protected data
  C. They can prevent attacks from the Internet only
  D. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the Internet
  E. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall

98. Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of
  A. protect
  B. shutdown
  C. restrict
  D. access

99. When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?
  A. when the router is statically assigned to reach a specific network
  B. when an interface on the router is configured with an IP address and enabled
  C. when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local router
  D. when the local router is in use as the network's default gateway

100.   Which three options are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose three.)
  A. recursive static routes
  B. redistributed static routes
  C. fully specified static routes
  D. directly connected static routes
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 E. injected static routes
 F. dynamically specified static routes

101. Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network
   router? (Choose two.)
 A. connecting RIP to a WAN interface
 B. enabling RIP on the router
 C. enabling automatic route summarization
 D. enabling RIP authentication
 E. allowing unicast updates for RIP

102.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   You have discovered that computers on the network can ping their
   default gateway, but they cannot connect to an resources on a remote network. Which
   reason tor the problem is most likely true?
 A. The OSPF area number is incorrect
 B. The network is missing from OSPF
 C. The OSPF process ID is incorrect
 D. An ARP table entry is missing for
 E. A VLAN number is incorrect for

103.   Which two options are primary responsibilties of the APIC-EM controller?
 A. it automates network actions between legacy equipment
 B. it tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions
 C. it automates network actions between different device types.
 D. it provides robust asset management
 E. it makes network functions programmable

104.   Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It authenticates against the user database on the local device.
 B. It is enabled on Cisco routers by default
 C. It can run on a UNIX server.
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 D. It uses a managed database
 E. It is more secure than AAA authentication.

105.   Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with MDI interfaces?
 A. rolled
 B. straight-through
 C. crossover
 D. crossed

106. Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose
 A. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
 B. It reduce management overhead
 C. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN
 D. It supports redundant configuration files
 E. It supports HSRP VRRP and GLBP
 F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

107.   Which address class includes network
 A. Class D
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class A

108.   Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
 A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
 C. DTP
 D. PagP

109.   Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?
 A. It is always performed automatically
 B. Each VLAN must have its own root bridge
 C. Every VLAN must use the same root bridge
 D. Every root bridge must reside on the same root switch

110.   Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
 A. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address
 B. It can count the number of hops to the remote host
 C. It can send a specified number of packets
 D. It can ping multiple hosts as the same time
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 E. It can resolve the destination host name

111. When you deploy Multiplelink PPP on your network, where you must configure the
   group IP address on each device?
 A. under the multi link interface
 B. under the serial interface
 C. under the routing protocol
 D. in the global configuration

112. Which technology can provide security when connecting multiple sites across the
 B. site-to-site VPN

113. Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid MAC addresses to pass
   but blocks traffic from invalid MAC address?
 A. shutdown
 B. shutdown VLAN
 C. restrict
 D. protect

114.   Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
 A. in the VLAN database
 B. in the MAC address table
 C. in the DHCP binding database
 D. in the CAM table
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115.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   What is the metric for the route from R1 to
 A. 90
 B. 52778
 C. 2
 D. 110

116.   Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? (Choose two.)
 A. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface
 B. They can be configured as host ports
 C. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface
 D. They can be configured as trunk ports
 E. 802.1 Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.

117. Which type of routing protocol operates by using first-hand information from each
   device's peers?
 A. exterior gateway protocols
 B. link-state protocols
 C. distance vector protocols
 D. path vector protocols

118. A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast enabled. Which state
   does the interface enter when it receives a BPDU?
 A. blocking
 B. listening
 C. errdisable
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 D. shutdown

119. Which three options are the major components of a network virtualization
   architecture? (Choose three.)
 A. path isolation
 B. authentication services
 C. network access control
 D. network resilience
 E. virtual network services
 F. policy enforcement

120.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the Loopback0 interface to the
   BGP peers?
 A. network 0.0 0 31
 B. network
 C. network 172.16.1 32 255.255 255 224
 D. network mask
 E. network mask
 F. network mask

121. Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose
 A. it can use a specified TTL value
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. it can be repeated automatically at a specified interval
 C. it can send packets from a specified interface or IP address
 D. it can validate the reply data
 E. it can use a specified ToS.

122. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
   (Choose two.)
 A. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
 C. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
 D. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
 E. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
 F. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

123.   Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
 A. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains
 B. They increase the size of collision domains
 C. They simplify switch administration
 D. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
 E. They can enhance network security
 F. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast

124.   What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
 A. 0000.0C07.AC15
 B. 0000.SE00.01A3
 C. 0007.SE00.8301
 D. 0007.8400.AE01

125. Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added,
   modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
 A. 2 through 1005
 B. 1 through 1002
 C. 2 through 1001
 D. 1 through 1001

126.   Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
 A. disabled
 B. listening
 C. discarding
 D. learning
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 E. forwarding

127.                                                                       <br>How
   should the FastEthemeto/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the
   exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
 A. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
 B. the ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
 C. SwitchX(config)# intertace fastethemet 0/1<br>SwitchX(config-if)# swllchport node
  trunk<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan
  10<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trun ... vlan 20
 D. SwilchX(config)# interface fastethemet 0/1<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode
  access<br>SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

128.   Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
 A. internet
 B. network
 C. transport
 D. application

129.   Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
 A. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
 B. to reduce routing overhead
 C. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
 D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
 E. to speed up convergence
 F. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
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130. Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it
   comes online?
 A. Preempt
 B. Version
 C. Priority
 D. IP address

131.   Which PPP subprotocol negotates authentcaton optons?
 A. LCP
 C. NCP

132.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
 A. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
 B. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
 C. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1
 D. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link
 E. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled
 F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5

133.   Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?
 A. when the router must route a single subnet across a single physical link B
 B. when the router must route a single subnet across multiple physical links
 C. when the router must route multiple subnets across a single physical link
 D. when the router must route multiple subnets across multiple physical links
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

134. Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose
 A. 802.1 Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
 B. 802 1 Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity
 C. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends
 D. 802 1 Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces
 E. 802.1 Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

135.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   If computer A is sending traffic to computer B. which option is the source IP address
   when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?
 A. IP address of the R2 interface F0/1
 B. IP address of computer A
 C. IP address of computer B
 D. IP address of the R1 interface F0/1

136. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic?
   (Choose two.)<br>

 A. There are seven collision domains in the network.
 B. There are four collision domains in the network
 C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
 D. There are five collision domains in the network
 E. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 F. There are four broadcast domains in the network

137. Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true?
   (Choose three.)
 A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
 B. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
 C. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
 D. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP
 E. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP
 F. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

138. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
 B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
 C. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
 D. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
 E. If a global address is assigned to an interface then that is the only allowable address for the

139.   What is one benefit of PVST+?
 A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops
 B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location to provide optmized bandwidth usage.
 C. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
 D. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optmized per VLAN

140. Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security
 A. show snmp group
 B. show snmp pending
 C. show snmp enginelD
 D. snmp-server contract

141. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on
   each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
 A. VTP revision number
 B. highest port priority number
 C. lowest port MAC address
 D. path cost
 E. port priority number and MAC address
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

142.   Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
 A. full-mesh capability
 B. simplicity of configuration
 C. low cost
 D. flexibility of design

143.   Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
 A. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval
 B. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an adrnirustranve form of load balancing.
 C. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the
 D. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
 E. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication
 F. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the
  same LAN.

144.   Which option is the main function of congestion management?
 A. discarding excess traffic
 B. classifying traffic
 C. queuing traffic based on priority
 D. providing long term storage of buffered data

145. Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?
   (Choose two)
 A. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes
 B. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates
 C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors
 D. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases
 E. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router
 F. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
 G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links

146. Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network
   ports on a router?
 A. show interface status
 B. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
 C. show interface switchport
 D. show ip interface brief

147. In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose
 A. when there is a carrier
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. when the server grants access
 C. when they receive a special token
 D. when the medium is idle
 E. when they detect no other devices are sending

148. Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud
   computing solution?
 A. It eliminates the need for a GSS
 B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
 C. It reduces the need for a backup data center
 D. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.

149.   What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)
 A. no broadcasts
 B. complicated header
 C. autoconfiguration
 D. checksums
 E. optional IPsec
 F. plug-and-play

150.   Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
 A. FF00::/8
 B. FC00::/8
 C. FE80::/10
 D. FC00::/7

151. Router R1 has a static route that is configured to a destination network. A directty
   connected interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.
   Which statement about R1 is true?
 A. R1 prefers the directly connected interface
 B. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to the other neighbors
 C. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
 D. R1 prefers the static route

152. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is
   missing from the routing table?
 A. it routes the packet to the default route
 B. it discards the packet
 C. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
 D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router
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153. Which IEEE standard protocol is initated as a result of successful DTP completion
   in a switch over Fast
 A. 802.1W
 B. 802.1Q
 C. 802.1AD
 D. 802.1D

154.   What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?
 A. Define inside and outside interfaces
 B. Define global and local interfaces
 C. Define pubic and private IP addresses
 D. Define IP address pools

155.   Which MAC protocol sets random timer to reattempt communication?
 D. IEEE 802.1x

156.   Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?
 A. dynamic
 B. bia
 C. sticky
 D. static

157. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex
   FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding
   switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
 A. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously
 B. More collision domains will be created
 C. IP address utilization will be more efficient
 D. An addmonal broadcast domain will be created.

158.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>
 A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
 B. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch
 C. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
 D. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

159.   Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?
 A. forwardinq
 B. learning
 C. blocking
 D. disabled

160. To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you
   perform? (Choose two.)
 A. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destmatiion network.
 B. Configure encapsulation dot1q
 C. Configure the subinterface with an IP address.
 D. Configure full duplex and speed
 E. Configure a default to the route traffic between suomtertaces.

161. While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command
   output displays tunnel status up, but line protocol is down. Which reason for this
   problem is the most likely?
 A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
 B. The next hop server is misconfigured
 C. The tunnel was just reset
 D. The interface has been administratively shut down.

162. Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure
   connections and strong authentication?
 A. Router>ssh-v2-I admin
 B. Router#ssh-v1-I admin
 C. Switch>ssh-v1-I admin
 D. Switch#ssh-l admin

163.   Which type of access list compares source and destination IP addresses?
 A. Extended
 B. Standard
 C. IP named
 D. Reflexive

164. Which command is needed to send RIPv2 updates as broadcast when configured
   for RIPv2?
 B. version 2
 C. ip rip recevie version 1
 D. ip rip receive version 2
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

165.   Which two statements about GRE tunnels are true?(choose two)
 A. They can operate in tunnel mode and transport mod
 B. They provide privacy, integrity, and authenticity
 C. They encapsulate the payload
 D. They allow multicast traffic to traverse WAN circuits

166.   Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true ?(choose two)
 A. it can authorize specific router commands
 B. it combines authentication and authorization
 C. it encrypts only the password
 D. it uses UDP as its transort protocol
 E. it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions

167. Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture network traffic and
   measure performance?(choose two)
 C. STP
 D. ACL

168. Which two features can mitigate spanning tree issues that are caused by broken
   fiber cables on interswitch links?( choose two)
 A. DTP
 B. root guard
 C. udld
 D. tool guard
 E. BPDU guard

169.   In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three)
 A. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 checksum field.
 B. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers
 C. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
 D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
 E. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPV4 Fragmentation field
 F. IPv6 header use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field

170.   which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow or shadow rules?
 A. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM
 B. the ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM
 C. the Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler
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 D. the Cisco IWAN application

171.   which two statement about link-state routing protocols are true?(choose two)
 A. each router determines its own path to a destination
 B. each router shares a database of known routes
 C. each router maintains its own unique routing database
 D. each router is aware only of its neighbor routers
 E. link-state routing protocols use split horizon to avoid routing loops

172. which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated
   with connected devices?
 A. show cdp traffic
 B. show cdp neighbors detail
 C. Show cdp neighbors
 D. show cdp interface

173.   which IPv6 address is the all router multicast group?
 A. FF02::2
 B. FF02::1
 C. FF02::4
 D. FF02::3

174.   Refer to the exhibit<br>

   The network administrator normally established a Telnet session with the switch from
   host A. However, host A is unavailable The administrator's attempt to telnet to the
   switch from host B fails but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the
 A. The switch interfceconneded to the router is down
 B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned
 C. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet
 D. The switch interfaces need to appropriate IP address assigned
 E. Host 8 needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN1
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175. After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 20,
   clients on vlan 10 are given IP address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to
   recevie IP addresses , Which action must you take to correct the problem?
 A. configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
 B. configure a separate DHCP sever on server on VLAN20
 C. configure a separate DHCP sever configuration
 D. configure the default gateway in the DHCP server configuration

176. Refer to the exhibit.<br>                                           The two
   connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which three would be
   the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)
 A. Ensure the switch has power
 B. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
 C. Reboot all of the device
 D. Reseat all cables
 E. Ensure cable A. is plugged into a trunk port
 F. Ensure that cables A and B are straight through cables.

177. Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they
   attempt to connect to a local network?
 A. 802.1x
 B. 802.2x
 C. 802.3x
 D. 802.11

178. which extended ping option do you use to specify the path that the packet
 A. strict
 B. verbose
 C. record
 D. timestamp
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

179.   Which two statements about single and dual homed links are true? (choose two)
 A. Single-homed connections to a service provider can use either static routing or BGP
 B. Dual-homed connections to a service provider most frequently use static routing
 C. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers can use OSPF or EIGRP for load balancing
 D. Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP
 E. Dual-homed connection to multiple service providers typically use BGP

180. Which two circumstance can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF
   neighbour adjacency? (Choose two.)
 A. Mismatched hello timers and dead timers
 B. Use of the same router ID on both devices
 C. Mismatched autonomous system numbers
 D. An ACL blocking traffic from multicast address
 E. Mismatched process IDs

181.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two pieces of information can you determine from the EIGRP topology table?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Each route has only one best path
 B. Route has a tag of 28160
 C. Route has an administrative distance of 28160
 D. The RIGRP neighbour IP address is
 E. The EIGRP neighbour IP address is
 F. The reported distance of is 0

182. Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages the transmission of binary digits across
   an Ethernet Cable?
 A. Physical
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 B. Transport
 C. Network
 D. Data link

183.   Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?
 A. An acknowledgment number
 B. A sequence number
 C. A TTL number
 D. A session ID

184. A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a
   specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over
   the internet. Which ACL can be used?
 A. Extended
 B. Standard
 C. Reflexive
 D. Dynamic

185. Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Policing
 B. Layer-by-layer
 C. Divide and conquer
 D. Top-down
 E. Round-robin

186.   Which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool? (Choose two.)
 A. Periodic refresh interval
 B. Destination port
 C. Protocol
 D. Source port
 E. Destination address
 F. Source address

187. What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router?
   ( Choose two.)
 A. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process
 B. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interface with the access-group command
 C. Administratively shut down the interface
 D. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-classcommand
 E. Physically secure the interface
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188. in a CDP environment, What happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent
   device is configured without an IP address?
 A. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
 B. COP operates normally, but is cannot provide any information for that neighbor
 C. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
 D. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor

189.   Refer to the Exhibit.<br>

   When PC 1 send a packet to PC2. The packet has witch source and destination IP
   address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
 A. Source and destination 192.168.20 1
 B. Source 192.168/10/10 and destination
 C. Source and destination 10.10.2 2
 D. Source and destination

190.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server if R4 is connected to R1 via
   OSPF Area 20. to R2 via BGP, and R3 via EIGRP 777. which path is installed in the
   routing table of R4.
 A. The path through R2, because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
 B. The path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance 110
 C. The path through R2, because the IBGP administrative distance is 200
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 D. The path through R2, because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than the OSPF and
  BGP adminisfrawe distance

191. Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial
 A. Autonegotiation
 B. Protocol analyzer
 C. Loopback test

192.   Which two statements about DNS lookup operations are true? (Choose two.)
 A. When the primary IP address of the destination is down, the DNS server can forward the client to
  an alternate IP address
 B. They use destination port 53
 C. The client sends a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server
 D. The client sends a request for a domain name to IP address resolution to the DNS server
 E. The DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

193. Bases on the output below from Switch B, which statement is true?<br>Switch
   B#show spanning-tree Vlan 40
 A. VLAN 40 is running the Per VLAN spanning Tree Protocol
 B. The MAC address of the root bridge is aaaa.bbbb.cccc
 C. The Fa0/11 role confirms that Switch Bis the root brodge for VLAN 40
 D. Switch B is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface rotes are designated

194.   Frame flooding can occur in which circumstance?
 A. The source IP address is missing from the route table
 B. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table
 C. The source MAC address is rnissinq from the CAM table
 D. The destination IP address is rnissinq from the route table

195.   Which two statements about the routing table are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It displays the distance and metric of the routes that it learns
 B. It displays information about the successor and the feasible successor
 C. It uses the> symbol to indicate the best route
 D. It displays the metric and the reported distance of the routes that is learns
 E. It uses letters such as 0, I, and D to identify how a route is learned

196.   Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It creates point-to-point tunnels
 B. It can operate in tunnel mode and transport mode
 C. It uses a spoke-toOspoke model to create a broadcast network
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 D. It creates NBMA network
 E. It uses NHRP to create Layer 3 to Layer 3 mappings

197.   Which switching method helps mitigate late Collisions?
 A. Fragment-free
 B. Store-and-forward
 C. Cur-through
 D. Layer 3

198.   What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?
 A. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when IEEE 802.1 D is in use
 B. It ignores the MAC aging timer when IEEE 802.1 D is in use
 C. It ignores the MAC aging timer when RSTP is in use
 D. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when RSTP is in use

199. What happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination MAC address after the
   MAC aging time expires
 A. It is queued
 B. It is dropped
 C. It is process switched
 D. It is flooded

200. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1 What two function will
   occur when this frame IS received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)<br>

 A. The mac address table will now have and additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 B. All frame arriving on 2950 Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out 0/1
 C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch
 D. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
  forward out fa0/1
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 E. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch will be
  forwarded our fa0/1
 F. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1

201. Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection over an unsecure
   transport network?
 A. Site-to-site VPN
 C. Client VPN
 D. VPN

202.   Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
 A. Hop Limit
 B. Scan Timer
 C. Hop Count
 D. TTD
 E. Flow label

203.   Which statement about loopback testing on a route serial interface is true?
 A. Traffic is dropped with a hardware loopback, but traffic passes through the interface with a
  software loopback
 B. Traffic is dropped with a software loopback but traffic passes through the interface with a hardware
 C. Traffic is dropped with both software loopbacks and hardware loopbacks
 D. Traffic passes through the interface with both software loopback and hardware loopbacks

204.   Which statement about LLDP is true?
 A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol
 B. It runs over the transport layer
 C. It is configured in global configuration mode
 D. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value

205. which network appliance check the state of a packet to determine whether the
   packet is legitimate?
 A. The LAN controller
 B. The firewall
 C. The layer 2 switch
 D. The load balance

206. Which adverse circumstance can occur when you connect full duplex devices to a
   shared Ethernet hub?
 A. A duplex mismatch
 B. Excessive collisions
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 C. Alignment errors
 D. Native VLAN mismatches

207. You are configuring a 100-Mb fast Ethernet connection between a PC and Switch.
   Which action must you take to configure the speed one each of the two interfaces?
 A. Set both interfaces to 100 Mb
 B. Set the switch port to 100 Mb and the PC interface to auto-negotiate
 C. Set both interfaces to auto-negotiate
 D. Set the switch port to auto-negotiate and the PC interface to 100 Mb

208. When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would
   you use to verify which interface are affected by the ACL?
 A. List ip interface
 B. Show interface
 C. Show ip interface
 D. Show ip access-list
 E. Show access-lists

209. Which two command sequences must you configure on a establish a layer 3 ether
   channel with an open- standard protocol? (choose two)
 A. interface 10<br>switchport<br>switchport mode trunk
 B. interface Gigabit ethemet 0/0/1<br>channel -group 10 mode active
 C. interface gigabit ethernet 0/0/1<br>channel -group 10 mode auto
 D. interface port- channel 10<br>no switchort<br>ip address
 E. interface gigabit ethernet 0/0/1<br>channel -group 10 mode on

210. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP
 A. show hsrp
 B. show interface
 C. show standby
 D. show sessions

211.   Which technology provides chassis redundancy in a VSS environment?
 A. multichassis ether channels
 C. stackwise
 D. BFD

212.   Which effect does the aaa new model configuration command have?
 A. it configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
 B. it configures a local user on the device
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 C. it enables AAA service on the device
 D. it associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group

213.   Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server?
 A. ntp server
 B. ntp authenticate
 C. ntp master
 D. ntp peer

214. Which command should you enter to configure a single port to prevent alternate
   ports fromcbecoming designated ports?
 A. spanning-treeguard root
 B. spanning-tree etherchannel misconflg
 C. spanning-tree loopguard default
 D. spanning-tree guard loop

215.   Which two values can identify a switch stack on the network?( choose two)
 A. the switch priority
 B. the spanning tree priority
 C. the management IP address of the device
 D. the switch BIA
 E. the bridge ID

216. Which chassis-aggregation technology combines two physical switches into one
 B. stackwise
 C. vss

217. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional
   tasks you consider? (choose two)
 A. configure additional VLANs
 B. configure additional security policies
 C. deplay POE switches
 D. deploy load balancers
 E. configure multiple VRRP groups

218. Which two statements about the ip default network command are true ?(choose
 A. it specifies the network that is used when the device cannot finds an exact match in the routing
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. it requires IP routing to be disabled on the device
 C. it specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the routing table
 D. it requires IP routing to be enabled on the device
 E. it can be configured on a layer 2 switch to specify the next hop

219. Which two pieces of information about a cisco device can cisco discovery protocol
   communication (choose two)
 A. the native VLAN
 B. the trunking protocol
 C. the spanning tree priorty
 D. the spanning tree protocol
 E. the VTP domain

220.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

                                                                              the server
   on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216, and the two interface on router R 1
   are configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000, as shown, what is the largest packet size
   that can pass between the workstation and the server?
 A. 3000 bytes
 B. 1500 bytes
 C. 2000 bytes
 D. 9216 bytes

221. Which two characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Utilizes event-triggered updates
 B. Provides common view of entire topology
 C. Calculates feasible path
 D. Utilizes frequent periodic updates
 E. Exchanges routing tables for its own routes with neighbors

222. Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec
 A. switch#
 B. switch>
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 C. switch(config}#
 D. switch(config-lf)#

223.   Which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?
 A. limiting bandwidth usage
 B. enabling policy-based routing
 C. providing best-effort service
 D. enabling dynamic flow identification

224.   What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two.)
 A. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
 B. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes
 C. It can be implemented easily even in large environments
 D. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
 E. It produces minimal CPU load

225. Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-
   homed connection is true?
 A. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
 B. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
 C. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
 D. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP

226. Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast
   BPDU guard error-disabled? (Choose two.)
 A. when a single IP address is configured on the switch
 B. when the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
 C. when the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
 D. when a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
 E. when a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch

227.   Which two commands can you use to verify an IP SLA? (Choose two.)
 A. show ip sla statistics
 B. show ip sla application
 C. show ip sla reaction- configuration
 D. show ip sla history
 E. show ip sla configuration

228. For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set the administrative
 A. between BGP routes and IGP routes
 B. for all BGP routes
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 C. for BGP external routes only
 D. for BGP internal routes only

229.   Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?
 A. It displays the configuration of the syslog server
 B. It configures a syslog server
 C. It puts the device into global configuration mode
 D. It configures the device to log messages to the console.

230. Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are
   true? (Choose two)
 A. Distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols
 B. Only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected
 C. Only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
 D. Only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
 E. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network

231. Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled
   algorithm that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
 A. ip domain lookup
 B. ip domain list
 C. ip name-server
 D. ip domain round-robin

232. Which API uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on
   different hosts?
 A. OpenFlow
 B. OpenStack
 D. OpFlex

233.   Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
 A. They use the prefix FC80::/8
 B. If the lifetime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent
 C. If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node
 D. They use the prefix FF00::/8
 E. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices

234.   Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?
 A. Teredo
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 B. 6to4
 D. GRE
 E. 4to6

235.   Which two services can be provided by a wireless controller? (Choose two.)
 A. Layer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices
 B. issuing IP addresses to wired devices
 C. providing authentication services to users
 D. managing interference in a dense network
 E. mitigating threats from the Internet

236. You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network
   connectivity issue. When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
 A. when you define the ICMP Echo operation
 B. when you verify the IP SLA operation
 C. when you specify the test frequency
 D. when you enable the ICMP Echo operation

237.   On which combinations are standard access lists based?
 A. source address and subnet mask
 B. destination address and subnet mask
 C. source address and wildcard mask
 D. destination address and wildcard mask

238.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

   two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose
 A. the MAC address of Host C
 B. the IP address of Switch 1
 C. the IP address of the router's E0 interface
 D. the MAC address of Switch 1
 E. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface
 F. the IP address of Host C

239. If all switches are configured with default values, which switch will take over when
   the primary root bridge experiences a power loss?
 A. switch 00E0.F908.6BE3
 B. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
 C. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5
 D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

240.   Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two.)
 A. web server
 B. ESX host
 C. name resolver
 D. authoritative name server
 E. file transfer server

241.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

                                                                              Host A
   cannot ping Host B. Assuming routing is property configured, what is the cause of
   this problem?
 A. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet
 B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

  C. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway
  D. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address
  E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used

242. Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing?
   (Choose two.)
  A. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible
  B. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks
  C. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers
  D. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
  E. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing

243.   Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (Choose two.)
  A. It uses four wires
  B. Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
  C. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
  D. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
  E. It uses four wire pairs

244.   Which two neighbour types are supported in a BGP environment? (Choose two)
  A. remote
  B. external
  C. autonomous
  D. internal
  E. directly attached

245. You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still
   reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the
   least disruptive way?
  A. Reboot the router
  B. Reload the OSPF process
  C. Specify a loopback address
  D. Save the router configuration

246. Which two values must you specify to perform an ACL-based Path Trace using
   APIC-EM? (Choose two.)
  A. source port
  B. source interface
  C. source IP address
  D. destination port
  E. destination IP address
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

247. Which command is configured on a switch to enable neighbour discovery in a
   multivendor environment?
 A. lldp transmit
 B. cdp run
 C. lldp run
 D. lldp receive

248.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems Which two
   configuration changes will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
 A. Configure the IP address of Host A as
 B. Configure the masks on both hosts to be
 C. Configure the gateway Host A as
 D. Configure the gateway on Host B as
 E. Configure the IP address of Host B as
 F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be

249.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

                                                                            On R1,
   which routing protocol is in use on the route to
 C. RIP
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250.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

                                                                      How many
   broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is
   configured on the switches?
 A. twelve
 B. six
 C. one
 D. two

251.   Which three elements are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three.)
 A. Preamble
 B. Frame Check Sequence
 C. Version
 D. Time to Live
 E. Length/Type
 F. Header Checksum

252.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command.
   Which two network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose )
 A. Network A- 172 16.3.48/26
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 B. Link A -
 C. Link A-
 D. Network A-
 E. Link A -
 F. Network A -

253.   Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (Choose two.)
 A. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails
 B. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
 C. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
 D. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image.
 E. You can license the entire stack with a single master license

254.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which
   interface command immediately removers the effect of ACL 102?
 A. no ip access-list 102 in
 B. no ip access-group 102 in
 C. no ip access-group 102 out
 D. no ip access-class 102 out
 E. no ip access-class 102 in

255. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two
   statements are true? (Choose two.)
 A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
 B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the
  voice VLAN.
 C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface the switch learns new addresses,
  up to the maximum
 D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
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  E. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running

256. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP
   application layer? (Choose three.)
  A. Presentation
  B. Session
  C. data link
  D. application
  E. transport
  F. network

257. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an IP
   enabled router interface?
  A. router(config-router)#default-information originate
  B. router(config)#Ip route 0.0.0 0 255.255 255 255 GigabitEthernet0/1
  C. router(config)#Ip route 0.0 0.0 GigabitEthemet0/1
  D. router(config)#lp default-gateway GigabitEthernet0/1

258.   Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose two.)
  A. Desirable
  B. on
  C. auto
  D. active
  E. Passive

259.   Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
  A. SW1 (config-line)#exec-timeout 1 0
  B. SW1 (config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
  C. SW1 (config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
  D. SW1 (config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
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260.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   network administrator must establish a route by which the London workstations can
   forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to
   accomplish this?
 A. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10 .1. .1.1
 B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester
 C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester
 D. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London
 E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172 .16.0.0/22 to

261.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The eO interface on Router C is down.
   Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
 A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
 B. Router C will send a Source Quench message type
 C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached
 D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type
 E. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached
 F. Router C will send a Router Selection message type
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262. Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA authentication?
   (Choose three.)
 A. Accessibility
 B. Authority
 C. Accountability
 D. Authorization
 E. Authentication
 F. Accounting

263.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Users on the network cannot reach the server located on the
   network The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port
   issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the
   output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is
   the cause of the failure?
 A. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
 B. The routing table on Coffee has not updated
 C. The network has not fully converged
 D. A static route is configured incorrectly.
 E. The FastEthemet interface on Coffee is disabled
 F. IP routing is not enabled.

264.   Which three options are types of layer 2 network attacks? (Choose three.)
 A. ARP attacks
 B. Spoofing attacks
 C. botnet attacks
 D. DDOS attacks
 E. VLAN hopping
 F. brute force attacks

265. Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 addresses are
   configured on a single interface?
 A. the prefix that administrator configures for OSPFv3 use
 B. all prefixes on the interface
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 C. the lowest prefix on the interface
 D. the highest prefix on the interface

266.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

                                                                           A technician
   ha installed Switch B and needs to configure it for remote access from the
   management workstation connected Switch A. Which set of commands is required to
   accomplish this task?
 A.

 B.

 C.
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 D.

 E.

267.   Which option is the master redundancy scheme for stacked switches?
 A. 1:N
 B. 1+N
 C. N:1
 D. 1:1

268.   What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
 A. They are routed to the Internet the same as public IP addresses
 B. They are less costly than public IP addresses
 C. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts
 D. They can be assigned to devices not requiring Internet connections
 E. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies

269.   What is the default Syslog facility level?
 A. local7
 B. local5
 C. local4
 D. local6

270.   Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)
 A. assigning IP addresses to local clients
 B. copying updated IOS images to Cisco switches
 C. forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server
 D. resolving names locally
 E. transferring split horizon traffic between zones

271.   Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
 A. They can manage mobility policies at a system wide level
 B. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS
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 C. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANS
 D. They are ideal for small wireless networks
 E. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security

272.   Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
 A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration
 B. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration
 C. The enable secret is in clear text m the configuration
 D. The enable secret is encrypted m the configuration.

273. Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted
   password and EXEC mode user privileges?
 A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password O 083140501A48
 B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 83140501A48
 C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
 D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password O PASSWORD1

274. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now
   ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
 A. It checks the configuration register
 B. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
 C. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
 D. It loads the first image file in flash memory.

275.   Refer
 A. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 B. Check the duplex mode for SwicthC's fa0/1 port
 C. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
 D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port

276.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   What is the effect of the given configuration?
 A. It configures the native VLAN.
 B. It configures an active management interface
 C. It configures the default VLAN.
 D. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.

   <br>At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will
   assume the discarding role?
 A. Switch3, port Gi0/2
 B. Switch3, port Gi0/1
 C. Switch3, port fa0/12
 D. Switch3, port fa0/1
 E. Switch4, port fa0/11
 F. Switch4, port fa0/2

278. Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with
   several satellite branches?
 A. Full mesh
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 B. point- to-point
 C. star
 D. hub and spoke

279. Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose
 A. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
 B. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel
 C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
 D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol
 E. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.

280. Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being
   forwarded from one network to another? (Choose two.)
 A. It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface
 B. It removes the Layer 2 frame header and trailer
 C. It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet
 D. It encapsulates the Layer 2 packet
 E. It removes the Layer 3 frame header and trailer.

281. Which two statements about northbound and southbound APls are true? (Choose
 A. Both northbound and southbound APls allow program control of the network
 B. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
 C. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
 D. Only northbound APls allow program control of the network.
 E. Only southbound APls allow program control of the network
 F. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer

282.   Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?
 A. Static
 B. Automatic
 C. Dynamic
 D. Manual

283.   Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two.)
 A. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server.
 B. They are used as backup routes when the primary route goes down
 C. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
 D. They have a higher administrative distance than default static route administrative distance
 E. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address.
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284.   Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three)
 A. Router>boot flash:c 180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124--6T.bin
 B. Router(config)#boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
 C. Router(config)#boot system tftp c7300-Js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
 D. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
 E. Router(config)#bool bootldr bootflash:c4500-Jk9s-mz .122.23f.bin
 F. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advtpservicesk9-mz .124-24.T4.bin

285.   What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
 A. one or more backup virtual routers
 B. exactly one active router
 C. exactly one standby active router
 D. one or more standby routers
 E. exactly one backup virtual router

286.   Which two facts about configuring EIGRPv6 are true? (Choose two.)
 A. If you change the interface bandwidth the EIGRPv4 metric is affected
 B. The variance command for EIGRPv6 is independent of EIGRPv4
 C. The router ID must be an IPv6 address.
 D. If you change the interface delay, the EIGRPv4 delay remains unchanged.
 E. You must configure neighboring devices with the same IPv6 hello-interval eigrp value

287.   Which technology is a critical component of a cloud-based architecture?
 A. DNS
 B. IPv6

288. You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running
   applications that require a fully meshed network, which two design standards are
   appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two.)
 A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing
 B. a centralized DMVPN solution to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
 C. a collapsed core and distribution layer to minimize costs
 D. a dedicated WAN distribution layer to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
 E. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing

289. Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose
 A. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols.
 B. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks.
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 C. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra-AS routing
 D. Service provides use EGP and BGP for intra-AS routing
 E. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks

290. Which extended ping feature do you use to specify the path that the packet
 A. Record
 B. verbose
 C. timestamp
 D. strict

291.   Cisco IOS supports which QoS models?
 A. best-effort and integrated services
 B. best-effort, integrated services and differentiated services
 C. integrated services and differentiated services
 D. best-effort and differentiated services

292. Which two functions describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose
 A. It supports HSRP, VRRP and GLBP
 B. It reduces management overhead
 C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
 D. It supports redundant configuration files
 E. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN

293.   Which two statements about the ip subnet-zero command are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It enables the network to make full use of the available IP address space
 B. It specifies the broadcast IP addresses in the subnet
 C. It is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
 D. It must be configured each time you reboot a router.
 E. It must be configured before you active NAT on a router.

294. Which file-system management command is used frequently when IOS backups,
   upgrades, and restores are performed?
 A. show file
 B. show dir
 C. copy
 D. delete

295. Which command must you enter to switch from privileged EXEC mode to user
   EXEC mode on a Cisco device?
 A. configure terminal
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 B. disable
 C. logout
 D. enable

296.   Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?
 C. LLDPv3
 D. TLV

297. Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (Choose
 A. the lowest system ID
 B. the lowest switch priority
 C. the highest port priority
 D. the highest MAC address
 E. the lowest MAC address

298. Which two statements about PAP authentication in a PPP environment are true?
   (Choose two.)
 A. It is performed at the beginning of the session and Is repeated periodically for as long as the
  session is maintained
 B. It hashes the password before sending it
 C. It sends the password in clear text
 D. It uses a username with an MD5 password to authenticate
 E. It is performed at the beginning of the session only

299.   Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?
 A. ip dhcp relay
 B. ip helper-address
 C. ip dhcp pool
 D. ip address dhcp

300.   Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two.)
 A. next-hop address or exit interface
 B. destination network and mask
 C. incoming interface
 D. administrative distance of the route
 E. source network and mask
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301. Which two commands can you user to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose
 A. channel-group 10 mode auto
 B. channel-group 10 mode passive
 C. channel-group 10 mode on
 D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
 E. channel-group 10 mode active

302.   Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
 A. CRC
 B. MD5
 C. AES-256
 D. SHA-1

303.   Which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot?
 A. PortFast
 B. DTP
 D. Port security

304. Which three statements describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a
   hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
 A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
 B. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
 C. to speed up convergence
 D. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
 E. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
 F. to reduce routing overhead

305. Which two best practices protect your network from VLAN hopping attacks?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Configure dynamic ARP inspection
 B. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
 C. Assign all access ports to VLANs other than the native VLAN
 D. Configure port security
 E. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

306.   Which two statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Choose two.)
 A. It can authorize specific router commands
 B. It uses TCP as its transport protocol
 C. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
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 D. It combines authentication and authorization
 E. It encrypts only the password

307.   Which protocol speeds up the MAC aging process?
 A. 802.1D
 D. RIP

308. You apply a new inbound access list to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP
   group. Which two effect does this action have on the HSRP group process? (Choose
 A. HSRP redundancy fails
 B. HSRP redundancy works as expected
 C. The active router immediately becomes the standby router
 D. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnings
 E. Both the active and standby routers become active

309.   Which two statements about RFC 1918 address are true? (Choose two.)
 A. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet
 B. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet
 C. They must be registered
 D. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only
 E. They increase network performance

310.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose
 A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface
 B. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

 C. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on
  the interface
 D. The interface is error-disabled
 E. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached
  on the interface

311.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two facts can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? (Choose two)
 A. All successors are injecting into the routing table
 B. The variance command must have issued to allow route to have two successors
 C. The reported distance value is greater than the feasible distance
 D. If a route has more than one successor, only one route is injected into the routing table
 E. The FD 28416 for route is also the metric for the routing table

312.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?
 A. shutdown VLAN
 B. protocol
 C. restrict
 D. shutdown

313. Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem?
   (Choose two.)
 A. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes
 B. Implement an action plan
 C. Analyze the results
 D. Gather all the facts
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 E. Monitor and verify the resolution

314. Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose
 A. An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client
 B. DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN logging
 C. You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface
 D. DDR is not supported
 E. PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment

315. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP
   neighbor adjacency (Choose two)
 A. An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address
 B. Both routers have the same router ID
 C. The routers are on different subnets
 D. The two routers have the same autonomous system number
 E. The routers have mismatched K values

316.   Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
 A. alternate
 B. forwarding
 C. designated
 D. backup

317. Which two commands should you enter to prevent a Cisco device from sharing
   information with upstream devices? (Choose two)
 A. R1(config-if)#no cdp enable
 B. R1(config-if)#no cdp run
 C. R1(config)#no cdp enable
 D. R1(config)#no cdp run
 E. R1(config)#no cdp advertise-v2

318.   Which two statements about PDU encapsulation are true? (Choose two.)
 A. During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and trailer to the PDU from the layer below
 B. PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer
 C. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation occurs on the network layer
 D. During encapsulation. each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the
  layer above
 E. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation starts on the Internet layer with the date from
  the application layer
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319. Which two goals are reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your
   network? (Choose two)
 A. Reduce the risk of a network security breach.
 B. Comply with local law
 C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
 D. Comply with PCI regulation
 E. Conserve IPv4 addresses

320.   Which QoS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
 A. weighted fair queuing
 B. policing
 C. shaping

321. What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic?
   (Choose two.)
 A. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP
 B. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
 C. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
 D. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the
 E. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets

322. Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true?
   (Choose two.)
 A. The successor is the secondary route
 B. The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor
 C. The successor is stored in the routing table
 D. The successor is the primary route
 E. The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table

323.   What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host
 A. Execute a ping from the router to host
 B. Add a static route for host to the routing table of the router.
 C. Execute a traceroute from the router to host
 D. Use Telnet to connect the router to host

324.   Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
 A. it supports full command logging
 B. it combines authentication and authorization to simplify configuration
 C. It encrypts the password only
 D. It uses TCP port 49
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  E. It uses UDP port 49

325. What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or
   broadcast? (Choose two.)
  A. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously
  B. It provides reliable TCP transport.
 C. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously
 D. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously
  E. It supports distributed applications

326. Which two commands should you enter to view the PID and serial number of a
   router? (Choose two)
  A. show license feature
 B. show license
 C. show license status
  D. show version
  E. show license udl

327.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose
  A. It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses
  B. Learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity
  C. It has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses
  D. The interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
 E. The security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address

328. Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client?
   (Choose two.)
  A. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface
  B. Define a dialer interface
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  C. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface
  D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template
  E. Define a virtual template interface

329.   Which switching method checks for CRC errors?
  A. cut-through
  B. store-and-forward
  C. fragment-free
  D. Layer 3

330. After an FTP session to fails, you attempt to ping the server. A ping
   to also fails, but a ping to the IP address of the server is successful.
   What is reason for the failed FTP session?
  A. An ACL is blocking the FTP request
  B. A firewall is blocking traffic from the FTP site
 C. The Internet connection is down
  D. The assigned DNS server is down

331. Which two address spaces are valid Class B IPv4 ranges that are non-routable to
   the Internet? (Choose two)
  A. through
  B. through
  C. through
  D. through
  E. through

332. Which access layer threat mitigation technique provides security by acting as a
   filter between trusted and untrusted traffic sources?
  A. 802.1X
  B. a nondefault native VLAN
  C. dynamic packet inspection
  D. DHCP snooping

333. Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot
   a network connectivity issue?
  A. Verify the ICMP echo operation
  B. Specify the test frequency
  C. Schedule the ICMP echo operation
  D. Enable the ICMP echo operation

334.   Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (Choose two.)
  A. It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device
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 B. It uses UDP
 C. It uses ICMP
 D. It can identify the source of an ICMP "time exceeded" message
 E. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path

335. Which two statements about an Ethernet frame source address are true? (Choose
 A. The address is 4 bits long
 B. The address is 6 bytes long
 C. The leftmost bit is always 0
 D. The leftmost bit is always 1
 E. The address is 4 bytes long

336. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show
   ntp status command (Choose two)
 A. The NTP version number of the peer
 B. Whether the NTP peer is statically configured
 C. The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
 D. The configured NTP servers
 E. Whether the clock is synchronized

337.   Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6?
 A. ipv6 summary-address eigrp
 B. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
 C. metric weights
 D. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp

338.   Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network
 A.
 B.
 C.
 D.

339. Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical
   switch? (Choose two)
 B. VSS
 E. StackWise
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

340. Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network?
   (Choose two.)
 A. flexibility
 B. on-demand scalability
 C. full control of infrastructure
 D. easy access with low security
 E. complexity at higher cost

341.   Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
 A. performance
 B. data
 C. control
 D. management

342.   Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?
 A. LSA
 C. LSP

343.   Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?
 A. native VLAN mismatch
 B. software misconfiguration
 C. duplex mismatch
 D. overloaded hardware queues

344.   Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)
 A. SPAN source port
 B. SPAN destination port
 C. DTP
 D. EtherChannel
 E. voice VLAN

345. Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose
 A. channel-group 10 mode auto
 B. channel-group 10 mode on
 C. channel-group 10 mode passive
 D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
 E. channel-group 10 mode active
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

346.   Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?
 A. ip helper-address
 B. ip address dhcp
 C. ip dhcp pool
 D. ip dhcp client

347.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   If all routers on this network run RIPv2, which two configurations can you apply to
   router R3 to produce this routing table? (Choose two)
 A. router rip<br>version 2<br>network<br>network<br>network<br>passive-interface default
 B. router rip<br>version 2<br>network<br>network
 C. router rip<br>version 2<br>network<br>network<br>network
 D. router rip<br>version 2<br>network<br>network<br>passive-interface
 E. router rip<br>version 2<br>network<br>network
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

348.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two statements about router R1 are true? (Choose two.)
 A. At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router
 B. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes
 C. The router has two EIGRP neighbours and one OSPF neighbour
 D. At least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router
 E. The router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at

349.   Refer to the exhibit.<br>

   Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown source address
   arrive after the interface learns the maximum member of secure MAC address?
   (Choose two)
 A. The security violation counter does not increment
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 B. The port LED turns off
 C. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses
 D. A syslog message is generated
 E. The interface is error-disabled

350. What is the maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in on
 A. 8
 B. 9
 C. 10
 D. 6

351.   Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two)
 A. RG-11
 B. Category 6
 C. RG-6
 D. Category 3
 E. Category 5e

352.   Which value is used to build the CAM table?
 A. destination MAC address
 B. source MAC address
 C. destination IP address
 D. source IP address

353.   Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
 A. It supports CIDR and VLSM
 B. It sends periodic updates via broadcast
 C. It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
 D. It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1
 E. It stores RIP neighbour adjacency information in a neighbour table

354.   Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two)
 A. Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installations of up to 200m
 B. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps
 C. Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps
 D. All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in
  the appropriate environments
 E. Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m
CCNA/CCNA_200-125_Exam_Dumps_ version_4_2019

355. Which keyboard shortcut can you use to exit the System Configuration Dialog on a
   Cisco network device and return to privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
 A. Ctrl-C
 B. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
 C. Ctrl-V
 D. Shift-Esc

356.   Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two)
 A. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet
 B. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP
 C. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration
 D. Its initial implementation is more complex then OSPF
 E. It allows packets to transit a different path if the topology changes

357. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table?
   (Choose two)
 A. which neighbour adjacencies are established
 B. the length of time that a route has been known
 C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
 D. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
 E. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system

358.   What is the minimum Ethernet frame size?
 A. 64 bytes
 B. 1500 bytes
 C. 1024 bytes

 D. 32 bytes